Discussion:
Neglected Moments in WW2 History
(too old to reply)
Stephen Graham
2014-06-04 16:50:07 UTC
Permalink
As happens every year here in the US, we are seeing some news articles
on the run-up to the D-Day commemoration in Normandy.

What we aren't seeing any mention of is the Italian campaign, with the
occupation of Rome occurring seventy years ago today, or various Pacific
Ocean campaigns, such as the on-going fighting in New Guinea or the
preparations for the invasion of the Marianas, or the fighting in
Southeast Asia.
ADPUF
2014-06-04 21:20:21 UTC
Permalink
Post by Stephen Graham
What we aren't seeing any mention of is the Italian campaign,
with the *occupation* of Rome occurring seventy years ago
today,
We call that "liberation of Rome" :-)
--
via AIOE
Haydn
2014-06-09 17:39:03 UTC
Permalink
What we aren't seeing any mention of is the Italian campaign...
One of the reasons why little is seen of the Italian campaign may be its
having been forced upon the reluctant Americans by the British, for what
amounted to - basically - their own geopolitical interests.

All justifications put forward, then and afterwards, for the campaign -
that it was a training ground for the Allies, that it tied down a
respectable number of Germans on a secondary front, that it was the only
major campaign the Allies could wage in 1943 as Stalin was shouldering
the entire weight of the land war, etc. - while containing each degrees
of truth, may conceal the fact that for the Americans it was not only a
backwater war, it was a useless and uselessly costly war that could be
avoided with a modicum of pressure on the Italian government and the
Fascist regime, some negotiation under the counter and conditional terms
of surrender offered.

The Roosevelt Administration was pretty well informed about what was
going on in Rome after Alamein and during the Tunisian campaign. They
must certainly have known about the pivotal March 1943 meeting of
Italian top industrialists and Fascist party bigwigs and the heated
discussion that ensued, leading to the conclusion that the sooner the
country dropped out of the war the better for it but not without trying
to fend off the inevitable British revenge by activating all connections
and channels with Washington DC and laying the stakes on the Americans
to make armistice terms not too harsh. And they must have known that in
May, Mussolini privately told the Fascist Party secretary that "we're
going to shut up shop".

In other words a jointly arranged solution, based on a conditional
surrender, a favorable armistice and immediate massive support against
any German retaliation, was feasible and entirely possible. While the
Fascist regime probably hoped to somehow save its skin and survive the
deal, the latter at any rate would have entailed no invasion of the
Italian mainland and no costly trudging up the length of the peninsula
for two years of mud, minefields and frustrations. Perhaps it's an
embarrassing sense of pointlessness still surrounding the campaign that
damps the interest in it.

Haydn
Michele
2014-06-10 14:38:18 UTC
Permalink
Il 09/06/2014 19.39, Haydn ha scritto:
conditional terms
Post by Haydn
of surrender offered.
based on a conditional
Post by Haydn
surrender,
All of what you write is very reasonable, but it all falls through with
the proviso above. After the way in which WWI ended and the
consequences, openly admitting that one of the three major Axis
combatants would be allowed to make it out with a conditional surrender,
and to boot a negotiated one, in which the loser would have some input
as to the conditions, was politically unfeasible for the Allied public
opinion back home.

We have pretty clear results of Gallup polls. Even later in the war, and
on the basis of assumptions that Germany would lose all its gains and
that the negotiations would not be done with Hitler but with a successor
German government made up of German generals, the US public did not want
to hear about conditional surrender. And that is the reason why
unconditional surrender was the policy of the Allies, and set in stone.
Haydn
2014-06-14 15:53:53 UTC
Permalink
Post by Michele
All of what you write is very reasonable, but it all falls through with
the proviso above.
...
And that is the reason why
Post by Michele
unconditional surrender was the policy of the Allies, and set in stone.
In my humble opinion, nothing is "set in stone" when it comes to real
politics.

Politics and geopolitics is more flexible than, and may follow different
paths from, official statements, words set in stone, solemn oaths,
handshakes amid popping flashbulbs, Gallup polls and all that
governments and their media system do and say (or don't do and don't
say) to shape or tame the public opinion.

I'm hardly going to believe that grand politics and policies are
seriously determined by "the public opinion" (whatever we mean with
that) and not by the economic, financial and political powers that be.

Haydn
Michele
2014-06-16 14:39:43 UTC
Permalink
Post by Michele
Post by Michele
All of what you write is very reasonable, but it all falls through with
the proviso above.
...
And that is the reason why
Post by Michele
unconditional surrender was the policy of the Allies, and set in stone.
In my humble opinion, nothing is "set in stone" when it comes to real
politics.
Well then, let's say it was extremely unlikely that the Allied decision
makers would accept any input as to the terms of surrender of the Axis
powers, by the Axis powers themselves.
Post by Michele
I'm hardly going to believe that grand politics and policies are
seriously determined by "the public opinion" (whatever we mean with
that) and not by the economic, financial and political powers that be.
You are moving away from both actual history and hypothetical history
and heading straight into political theorizing. I'm glad that we now
know about your beliefs and opinions about that sort of thing, but I'm
not interested to follow you there. Thank you anyway.
news
2014-06-17 18:58:51 UTC
Permalink
Post by Michele
Well then, let's say it was extremely unlikely that the Allied decision
makers would accept any input as to the terms of surrender of the Axis
powers, by the Axis powers themselves.
Certainly the Allies didn't concede anything substantive to the
Badaglio government or the Germans. To my understanding the main delay
in taking the German surrender was that the troops on the ground
wanted orders on whether they took Doenitz as a naval prisoner of war
or arrested him as a hostile head of government.

To the Japanese they made quite a large concession in preserving the
Japanese monarchy and the person of the Emperor. One PRESUMES this was
on the input of the Japanese government!

They certainly weren't bound to as the WW1 example of Kaiser Wilhelm
at the end of the war makes plain.
WJHopwood
2014-06-18 04:20:22 UTC
Permalink
On Tuesday, June 17, 2014 2:58:51 PM UTC-4, news
Post by news
Certainly the Allies didn't concede anything substantive
to the Badaglio government or the Germans.....To the
Japanese they made quite a large concession in
preserving the Japanese monarchy and the person of the
Emperor. One PRESUMES this was on the input of the
Japanese government!
It is my understanding that there were no actual
"negotiations" in the usual meaning of the word between
the Allied powers and Japan which led to the Japanese
surrender. I believe the scenario played out somewhat
like this:
Although Foreign Minister Togo and a few
other calmer heads in Tokyo knew that Japan was losing
the war, there had only been two feelers put out by Japan
toward peace with the Allies--one an attempt to make
contact through an American OSS representative in
Switzerland, the other, by asking for the assistance of the
USSR but both never came to fruition. Thus, In the final
analysis, there was only the Potsdam declaration which
formed the basis for the surrender of Japan
The Potsdam declaration was at first ignored by
Japan. However, one of the terms therein was that the
Allies would 'brook no delay" in its acceptance so when
it became clear that there would be no responses from
Japan, the decision was made to enforce the Potsdam
provision for "prompt and utter destruction" of Japan.
Accordingly, the atomic bombs were dropped on
Hiroshima and Nagasaki. This shocked and surprised
the Japanese leadership and a strong debate ensued with
regard to whether they should fight to the death, accept
the terms of the Potsdam declaration but with some
terms of their own, or whether they should accept it
without conditions.
Sensing from the translation that the terms of the
declaration which said "We do not intend that the Japanese
shall be enslaved as a race or destroyed as a nation" might
allow Japan to accept the terms of the declaration with the
understanding that said terms did not "comprise any
demand which prejudices the prerogatives of His Majesty
as a sovereign ruler," Japan agreed and surrendered.
The Allies, by agreeing to leave the Emperor in place
might have meant to do so, not as a "concession" but with
deliberate intent as a wise decision, which it turned out to be.

WJH
GFH
2014-06-18 15:16:39 UTC
Permalink
Post by WJHopwood
It is my understanding that there were no actual
"negotiations" in the usual meaning of the word between
the Allied powers and Japan which led to the Japanese
surrender.
And what do you think they (USA & Japan) did between
8/16 and 9/2? They 'negotiated'.

IMHO, if it had not been for the threat of an
imminent invasion of Hokkaido by the USSR, they
would still be negotiating.

GFH
WJHopwood
2014-06-18 23:30:18 UTC
Permalink
Post by GFH
Post by WJHopwood
It is my understanding that there were no actual
"negotiations" in the usual meaning of the word
between the Allied powers and Japan which led
to the Japanese surrender.
And what do you think they (USA & Japan) did
between 8/16 and 9/2? They 'negotiated'.
They had already capitulated before that. The only
"negotiations" in the time frame you mention were
to make preparations for the "formal" surrender
ceremonies to be conducted on 9/2.
A meeting was held in Manila between a U.S.
team headed by aide to MacArthur, General Charles
Willoughby, and a 19-member Japanese delegation
which included two Japanese-Americans, George
Shuichi and Sadao Ote, both of whom had held
important positions in the Japanese armed forces
during the war.
Japan actually capitulated on August 10, when
it cabled the Allies its acceptance of the terms of the
Potsdam declaration. On August 15, 1945 (Japanese
time) Emperor Hirohito announced by radio that Japan
had done so Henceforth that date, August 15, has
been known as VJ-Day.
Post by GFH
MHO, if it had not been for the threat of an
imminent invasion of Hokkaido by the USSR, they
would still be negotiating.
i think it more likely that the fear of total annihilation
by atomic weaapons was their motivation for giving up
when they did.

WJH
m***@netMAPSONscape.net
2014-06-20 16:24:15 UTC
Permalink
Post by GFH
Post by WJHopwood
It is my understanding that there were no actual
"negotiations" in the usual meaning of the word between
the Allied powers and Japan which led to the Japanese
surrender.
And what do you think they (USA & Japan) did between
8/16 and 9/2? They 'negotiated'.
So, what terms were granted Japan?

Mike
m***@netMAPSONscape.net
2014-06-20 16:28:21 UTC
Permalink
Post by WJHopwood
On Tuesday, June 17, 2014 2:58:51 PM UTC-4, news
Sensing from the translation that the terms of the
declaration which said "We do not intend that the Japanese
shall be enslaved as a race or destroyed as a nation" might
allow Japan to accept the terms of the declaration with the
understanding that said terms did not "comprise any
demand which prejudices the prerogatives of His Majesty
as a sovereign ruler," Japan agreed and surrendered.
The Allies, by agreeing to leave the Emperor in place
might have meant to do so, not as a "concession" but with
deliberate intent as a wise decision, which it turned out to be.
The allies never actually agreed to that; they deliberately phrased their
response to give no further concessions, and said the right for the Emperor
to rule would depend on the decision of SCAP. The Japanese, sensing no
real hostility in the reply, accepted that.

Mike
Michele
2014-06-18 15:16:17 UTC
Permalink
Post by news
Post by Michele
Well then, let's say it was extremely unlikely that the Allied decision
makers would accept any input as to the terms of surrender of the Axis
powers, by the Axis powers themselves.
Certainly the Allies didn't concede anything substantive to the
Badaglio government or the Germans. To my understanding the main delay
in taking the German surrender was that the troops on the ground
wanted orders on whether they took Doenitz as a naval prisoner of war
or arrested him as a hostile head of government.
To the Japanese they made quite a large concession in preserving the
Japanese monarchy and the person of the Emperor. One PRESUMES this was
on the input of the Japanese government!
There is the usual point.

The Allies' official policy was described as "unconditional surrender".
That is often taken to mean "you surrender and we make no promises
whatsoever". That was not the intention. The intention was: "This is the
package. There _are_ conditions that _we_ are willing to grant. But it's
a take-or-leave-it package, we won't negotiate with you".

This applied to Italy, Japan, and other minor Axis.

In the case of Germany, OTOH, we're closer to an actual surrender at
mercy, without conditions.
m***@netMAPSONscape.net
2014-06-20 16:27:30 UTC
Permalink
Post by news
To the Japanese they made quite a large concession in preserving the
Japanese monarchy and the person of the Emperor. One PRESUMES this was
on the input of the Japanese government!
Um, there was no such concession; this is a fiction. The Japanese
surrendered under the terms spelled out in the Potsdam Declaration. The
Emperor was not mentioned, nor did the US give any guarantees.

Mike
Roman W
2014-06-20 20:07:40 UTC
Permalink
Post by m***@netMAPSONscape.net
Um, there was no such concession; this is a fiction. The Japanese
surrendered under the terms spelled out in the Potsdam Declaration. The
Emperor was not mentioned, nor did the US give any guarantees.
The US needed an allly to the East of the USSR. I suppose the
Japanese knew that.

RW
Stephen Graham
2014-06-20 20:16:47 UTC
Permalink
Post by m***@netMAPSONscape.net
Um, there was no such concession; this is a fiction. The Japanese
surrendered under the terms spelled out in the Potsdam Declaration.
The
Post by m***@netMAPSONscape.net
Emperor was not mentioned, nor did the US give any guarantees.
The US needed an allly to the East of the USSR. I suppose the Japanese
knew that.
This appears to presume that the logic of the Cold War applied with
regard to Japan while the US was still at war with Japan. I don't think
that's a reasonable supposition.
Michael Emrys
2014-06-21 04:10:40 UTC
Permalink
Post by Stephen Graham
Post by Roman W
The US needed an allly to the East of the USSR. I suppose the
Japanese knew that.
This appears to presume that the logic of the Cold War applied with
regard to Japan while the US was still at war with Japan. I don't
think that's a reasonable supposition.
I agree. This is a retrospective application of hindsight that was not
available to most anybody at the time in question. At that time, the USA
and the USSR were ostensibly allies and only the cynics expected that
relationship to end as soon as it did. There were ample cynics among the
Western Allies, but that would not have been apparent to the Japanese
leadership.

Michael
Roman W
2014-06-21 16:58:12 UTC
Permalink
On Fri, 20 Jun 2014 16:16:47 -0400, Stephen Graham
Post by Stephen Graham
This appears to presume that the logic of the Cold War applied with
regard to Japan while the US was still at war with Japan. I don't think
that's a reasonable supposition.
Wasn't the Cold War anticipated in 1945?

RW
John Dallman
2014-06-21 17:26:29 UTC
Permalink
Post by Roman W
Wasn't the Cold War anticipated in 1945?
To some degree, but not in any detail. In particular, the US expected to
have a monopoly on nuclear weapons for a decade or more. The Soviet test
in 1949 was a considerable shock, comparable to the Sputnik shock eight
years later.

John
Andrew Chaplin
2014-06-21 17:37:34 UTC
Permalink
Post by Roman W
On Fri, 20 Jun 2014 16:16:47 -0400, Stephen Graham
Post by Stephen Graham
This appears to presume that the logic of the Cold War applied with
regard to Japan while the US was still at war with Japan. I don't
think
Post by Stephen Graham
that's a reasonable supposition.
Wasn't the Cold War anticipated in 1945?
If at all, only by the most ardent anti-Communists. Many countries were in
denial, and hoping for peace and quiet. It is only with Igor Gouzenko's
defection in Ottawa that Western states started to re-orient their
intelligence efforts.
--
Andrew Chaplin
SIT MIHI GLADIUS SICUT SANCTO MARTINO
(If you're going to e-mail me, you'll have to get "yourfinger." out.)
Stephen Graham
2014-06-21 18:57:21 UTC
Permalink
Post by Andrew Chaplin
Post by Roman W
On Fri, 20 Jun 2014 16:16:47 -0400, Stephen Graham
Post by Stephen Graham
This appears to presume that the logic of the Cold War applied with
regard to Japan while the US was still at war with Japan. I don't
think
Post by Stephen Graham
that's a reasonable supposition.
Wasn't the Cold War anticipated in 1945?
If at all, only by the most ardent anti-Communists. Many countries were in
denial, and hoping for peace and quiet. It is only with Igor Gouzenko's
defection in Ottawa that Western states started to re-orient their
intelligence efforts.
The focus in 1945-6 was primarily on rebuilding, repairing and
re-establishing the governments needed.

Germany and Japan were problems to be solved. Armies needed to be
repatriated, civilians returned, and decisions made about ethnic
populations.

What Roman implies is very much a feature of the 1950s, not the 1940s.
Dan Nagle
2014-06-21 18:56:41 UTC
Permalink
Hi,
Post by Roman W
On Fri, 20 Jun 2014 16:16:47 -0400, Stephen Graham
Post by Stephen Graham
This appears to presume that the logic of the Cold War applied with
regard to Japan while the US was still at war with Japan. I don't
think
Post by Stephen Graham
that's a reasonable supposition.
Wasn't the Cold War anticipated in 1945?
Not enough to keep the Soviets out of the Kuril Islands.
IIRC, the Soviet troops had orders to withdraw upon seeing an American soldier.
--
Cheers!

Dan Nagle
GFH
2014-06-27 14:43:22 UTC
Permalink
Post by Dan Nagle
Hi,
Post by Roman W
On Fri, 20 Jun 2014 16:16:47 -0400, Stephen Graham
Post by Stephen Graham
This appears to presume that the logic of the Cold War applied with
regard to Japan while the US was still at war with Japan. I don't
think
Post by Stephen Graham
that's a reasonable supposition.
Wasn't the Cold War anticipated in 1945?
Not enough to keep the Soviets out of the Kuril Islands.
IIRC, the Soviet troops had orders to withdraw upon seeing an American soldier.
To whom?

GFH
news
2014-06-22 18:12:25 UTC
Permalink
On Sat, 21 Jun 2014 12:58:12 -0400, Roman W
Post by Roman W
On Fri, 20 Jun 2014 16:16:47 -0400, Stephen Graham
Post by Stephen Graham
This appears to presume that the logic of the Cold War applied with
regard to Japan while the US was still at war with Japan. I don't
think
Post by Stephen Graham
that's a reasonable supposition.
Wasn't the Cold War anticipated in 1945?
If you accept Josef Goebbels as a source it was anticipated as early
as 1942 - as a disaster scenario if Germany failed to prevail.

He was the first recorded source of the term "iron curtain" which is a
factoid a certain English gentleman would no doubt have preferred to
ignore.
Rich Rostrom
2014-06-25 17:51:44 UTC
Permalink
Post by Roman W
The US needed an allly to the East of the USSR. I suppose the
Japanese knew that.
That's what some of the Japanese imagined.

At least one prominent hardliner asserted
that the Soviet entry into the war would
make the U.S. _more_ willing to deal with
the imperial government for precisely that
reason.

This was complete nonsense; the U.S. was
not thinking in those terms. (And if the
U.S. had been, China would have been a far
better candidate for that role.)
--
The real Velvet Revolution - and the would-be hijacker.

http://originalvelvetrevolution.com
GFH
2014-06-26 14:37:16 UTC
Permalink
Post by Rich Rostrom
Post by Roman W
The US needed an allly to the East of the USSR. I suppose the
Japanese knew that.
That's what some of the Japanese imagined.
At least one prominent hardliner asserted
that the Soviet entry into the war would
make the U.S. _more_ willing to deal with
the imperial government for precisely that
reason.
This was complete nonsense; the U.S. was
not thinking in those terms. (And if the
U.S. had been, China would have been a far
better candidate for that role.)
Japan's economic recovery was greatly aided
by the Korean War. Japan was an important
staging and 'behind the lines' area. In many
ways, the Korean War was better for Japan than
the Marshall Plan was for Germany.

GFH
m***@netMAPSONscape.net
2014-06-29 04:55:15 UTC
Permalink
Post by GFH
Japan's economic recovery was greatly aided
by the Korean War. Japan was an important
staging and 'behind the lines' area. In many
ways, the Korean War was better for Japan than
the Marshall Plan was for Germany.
Yes, having your homeland so close to the battlelines is always good for
the economy.

Mike
news
2014-06-29 19:52:41 UTC
Permalink
Post by m***@netMAPSONscape.net
Post by GFH
Japan's economic recovery was greatly aided
by the Korean War. Japan was an important
staging and 'behind the lines' area. In many
ways, the Korean War was better for Japan than
the Marshall Plan was for Germany.
Yes, having your homeland so close to the battlelines is always good for
the economy.
Uh - only if your country is not >IN< the frontlines as demonstrated
by Japan 1944-45 and Germany 1943-45....

Michele
2014-06-23 14:39:18 UTC
Permalink
Post by m***@netMAPSONscape.net
Post by news
To the Japanese they made quite a large concession in preserving the
Japanese monarchy and the person of the Emperor. One PRESUMES this was
on the input of the Japanese government!
Um, there was no such concession; this is a fiction. The Japanese
surrendered under the terms spelled out in the Potsdam Declaration. The
Emperor was not mentioned, nor did the US give any guarantees.
Mike
I wrote nothing of the sort. Be mroe careful with your quoting, thank you.
Michael Emrys
2014-06-23 16:20:52 UTC
Permalink
Post by Michele
Post by m***@netMAPSONscape.net
Post by news
To the Japanese they made quite a large concession in preserving the
Japanese monarchy and the person of the Emperor. One PRESUMES this was
on the input of the Japanese government!
Um, there was no such concession; this is a fiction. The Japanese
surrendered under the terms spelled out in the Potsdam Declaration. The
Emperor was not mentioned, nor did the US give any guarantees.
Mike
I wrote nothing of the sort. Be mroe careful with your quoting, thank you.
Well, what _did_ you mean then? When I read the above, it seemed to me
that Mike's reading was perfectly consistent with what you wrote. But if
you intended something else I await your clarification.

Michael
Mario
2014-06-23 19:59:01 UTC
Permalink
Post by Michael Emrys
Post by Michele
Post by m***@netMAPSONscape.net
On Mon, 16 Jun 2014 10:39:43 -0400, Michele
To the Japanese they made quite a large concession in
preserving the Japanese monarchy and the person of the
Emperor. One PRESUMES this was on the input of the
Japanese government!
Um, there was no such concession; this is a fiction. The
Japanese surrendered under the terms spelled out in the
Potsdam Declaration. The Emperor was not mentioned, nor did
the US give any guarantees.
Mike
I wrote nothing of the sort. Be mroe careful with your
quoting, thank you.
Well, what _did_ you mean then? When I read the above, it
seemed to me that Mike's reading was perfectly consistent
with what you wrote. But if you intended something else I
await your clarification.
Michael
Michael, Michele complained that Mike misquoted him.

(oh! three Mikaels in a row...)


In fact the quotation was from

From: news <***@fx17.iad.highwinds-media.com>

who replied to a previous Michele's message.
--
oiram
Michael Emrys
2014-06-23 21:58:16 UTC
Permalink
Post by Mario
Michael, Michele complained that Mike misquoted him.
(oh! three Mikaels in a row...)
In fact the quotation was from
who replied to a previous Michele's message.
Yike! Confusion reigns!

Michael
Michele
2014-06-24 14:38:55 UTC
Permalink
Post by Michael Emrys
Post by Michele
Post by m***@netMAPSONscape.net
Post by news
To the Japanese they made quite a large concession in preserving the
Japanese monarchy and the person of the Emperor. One PRESUMES this was
on the input of the Japanese government!
Um, there was no such concession; this is a fiction. The Japanese
surrendered under the terms spelled out in the Potsdam Declaration. The
Emperor was not mentioned, nor did the US give any guarantees.
Mike
I wrote nothing of the sort. Be mroe careful with your quoting, thank you.
Well, what _did_ you mean then? When I read the above, it seemed to me
that Mike's reading was perfectly consistent with what you wrote. But if
you intended something else I await your clarification.
Michael
What I wrote was:
"Well then, let's say it was extremely unlikely that the Allied decision
makers would accept any input as to the terms of surrender of the Axis
powers, by the Axis powers themselves."

What I mean by that is that while the Allied decision makers might and
actually did decide to grant "conditions" (contrarily to the literal
meaning of "unconditional surrender"), these were _granted_,
unilaterally, by the Allies. The losers couldn't haggle and negotiate
and make proposals as to those conditions.
And in the event of other circumstances, as hypothesized by another
poster, I maintain that, while we cannot be sure about anything that is
not factual, the chances that this stance of the winners would change
would be minimal.
These were take-it-or-leave-it offers by the Allies; even if some of the
circumstances changed (and thus we head into what-if land), I very much
doubt this attitude would change.

The sentence:
"To the Japanese they made quite a large concession in preserving the
Japanese monarchy and the person of the Emperor. One PRESUMES this was
on the input of the Japanese government!"

...was simply not written by me.
Michael Emrys
2014-06-24 15:42:52 UTC
Permalink
Post by Michele
"To the Japanese they made quite a large concession in preserving the
Japanese monarchy and the person of the Emperor. One PRESUMES this was
on the input of the Japanese government!"
...was simply not written by me.
Gotcha. Mario cleared that up in his post. BTW, SFAIK your stated
position is correct and a reasonable reading of the situation. Thank you.

Michael
m***@netMAPSONscape.net
2014-06-29 06:03:09 UTC
Permalink
Post by Michele
Post by m***@netMAPSONscape.net
Post by news
To the Japanese they made quite a large concession in preserving the
Japanese monarchy and the person of the Emperor. One PRESUMES this was
on the input of the Japanese government!
Um, there was no such concession; this is a fiction. The Japanese
surrendered under the terms spelled out in the Potsdam Declaration. The
Emperor was not mentioned, nor did the US give any guarantees.
Mike
I wrote nothing of the sort. Be mroe careful with your quoting, thank you.
That's why the "news <***@fx17.iad.highwinds-media.com> wrote:" is there.

You're welcome.

Mike
Geoffrey Sinclair
2014-06-10 15:11:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by Haydn
What we aren't seeing any mention of is the Italian campaign...
One of the reasons why little is seen of the Italian campaign may be its
having been forced upon the reluctant Americans by the British, for what
amounted to - basically - their own geopolitical interests.
Yes and no, the US understood the need to make the Mediterranean
sealanes secure plus wanted bases in southern Italy for heavy bombers.
The initial invasion of Italy is quite justifiable in military terms.

What happened after that is less so.
Post by Haydn
All justifications put forward, then and afterwards, for the campaign -
that it was a training ground for the Allies, that it tied down a
respectable number of Germans on a secondary front, that it was the only
major campaign the Allies could wage in 1943 as Stalin was shouldering the
entire weight of the land war, etc. - while containing each degrees of
truth, may conceal the fact that for the Americans it was not only a
backwater war, it was a useless and uselessly costly war that could be
avoided with a modicum of pressure on the Italian government and the
Fascist regime, some negotiation under the counter and conditional terms
of surrender offered.
Many in the US understood that once you start fighting in an
area it usually means operations will continue to the end of
the war or somehow the theatre is cleared of enemy. And
so wanted nothing to do with the invasion of North Africa.

And given the active campaigns in the Pacific it is not
surprising the US ranked the Mediterranean theatre
quite low, even before talking the invasion of France.

How exactly is a war in Italy to be avoided, is the idea the Italian
Government will subdue the German forces all the way to the
Alps? Even then is it possible the allies would use the bases
to try and strike into France, Austria and/or Yugoslavia?
Post by Haydn
The Roosevelt Administration was pretty well informed about what was going
on in Rome after Alamein and during the Tunisian campaign. They must
certainly have known about the pivotal March 1943 meeting of Italian top
industrialists and Fascist party bigwigs and the heated discussion that
ensued, leading to the conclusion that the sooner the country dropped out
of the war the better for it but not without trying to fend off the
inevitable British revenge by activating all connections and channels with
Washington DC and laying the stakes on the Americans to make armistice
terms not too harsh. And they must have known that in May, Mussolini
privately told the Fascist Party secretary that "we're going to shut up
shop".
You have assumed a great deal, you really need to see if the
assumptions are correct. What peace feelers were put out
by the Italian government while Mussolini was still in power?
How much support did the then government give them?

So far as I can tell the attempts to surrender started after
Mussolini was removed from power. And also the new
government did not make preparations that gave them a
chance to bring the army over to the allied side.

It was known Italian morale was low, and the allies did things like
a series of bomber raids on Italian targets in July and August,
including by Bomber Command.

Mussolini being overthrown on 25 July was a very good clue.
Post by Haydn
In other words a jointly arranged solution, based on a conditional
surrender, a favorable armistice and immediate massive support against any
German retaliation, was feasible and entirely possible.
As of September 1943 the Germans had 6 divisions in the south
of Italy and another 10 in the north, plus elements of others, while
not all were combat worthy, it was still 5 Panzer, 3 Panzer grenadier,
2 Parachute and 6 infantry. The major failure of Sicily, to trap the
German forces there, had really helped German strength.

The US had 9 divisions in the Mediterranean, including 2 armoured
and 1 airborne, the British had 13, including 4 armoured and 1
airborne, but not all of them were combat worthy, in addition there
were the Canadian, Indian, New Zealand and South African troops.

So in divisional terms the allies probably had a 1.5 to 1 or better
advantage, but the Germans had a working rail system and reserve
troops outside of Italy that could travel to Italy faster than the allies
could. It would require large scale sabotage of the rail lines to
slow down the Germans, even then they would be faster than
allied troops requiring disembarkation.

The Luftwaffe had bases and aircraft available outside of allied
fighter range at the time.

Allied amphibious sealift determined how many troops they could
put onto a hostile shore, and that was limited, as can be seen
by the size of the Salerno landings. To put bulk troops into Italy
the allies needed friendly ports, and even then if the troops are
expecting to be in combat after arrival the shipping capacity is
not much greater than an amphibious assault. Only if you can
take a few weeks to reassemble a unit and its equipment do
you really save on shipping.

Air units require lots of fuel and every air unit moved to Italy
would compete with the ground units for shipping.

Is the idea the Italians will hold open the northern ports, and also
hold off the Luftwaffe? Plus provide extra shipping?

So how are the German forces already in Italy removed?

What exactly is massive support?

Even if the Italian army fights the Germans how will that ensure
the Germans are out of Italy by the end of 1943?

Given the size of the German forces in Italy, the problems the
Luftwaffe caused at Salerno and Anzio, the best I can see is
the Italians hold Rome open, allied troops land and the historical
1944 winter line is reached in 1943.

What would happen to make a better outcome possible?
Post by Haydn
While the Fascist regime probably hoped to somehow save its skin and
survive the deal, the latter at any rate would have entailed no invasion
of the Italian mainland and no costly trudging up the length of the
peninsula for two years of mud, minefields and frustrations.
The allies sign a deal with the Government that had been
fighting against them that largely leaves it in power?

So the Italians drive the Germans out of Italy without allied
intervention? Or the Germans decide to leave?

The Germans held the advantages when it came to deciding
where in Italy the front line would be.
Post by Haydn
Perhaps it's an embarrassing sense of pointlessness still surrounding the
campaign that damps the interest in it.
The pointlessness came into play in 1944, given the squeeze on
resources, in particular amphibious lift, and the movement of
troops into Southern France. The Anzio attack is a good
example. The campaign is often noted for the mistakes made.

It you want to invade Italy using seapower seems the better
solution, it was not available.

Geoffrey Sinclair
Remove the nb for email.
Haydn
2014-06-14 15:54:13 UTC
Permalink
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
How exactly is a war in Italy to be avoided, is the idea the Italian
Government will subdue the German forces all the way to the
Alps? Even then is it possible the allies would use the bases
to try and strike into France, Austria and/or Yugoslavia?
You have assumed a great deal, you really need to see if the
assumptions are correct. What peace feelers were put out
by the Italian government while Mussolini was still in power?
Scads of them, since mid-1942 and increasingly since Alamein (which was
really experienced as a turning point). Badoglio put out his feelers.
The Royal House put out its feelers, mainly through courtesy of Princess
Maria Jose, wife of the heir to the Crown. And others, the Fascist
regime included, did likewise. Through Switzerland or other channels.

Wars, even world wars, don't stop politics and business being done
between enemy coalitions. It's naive to assume the opposite. Top level
meetings of British, German, US and Italian financiers and CEOs all
sitting around the same table took place throughout the war. Money,
especially, has no country it proudly belongs to.
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
How much support did the then government give them?
The government, ie. Mussolini, either allowed them, or took part in them.
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
So far as I can tell the attempts to surrender started after
Mussolini was removed from power.
Not the case, as I wrote above.
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
And also the new
government did not make preparations that gave them a
chance to bring the army over to the allied side.
That's because partly, probing the Allies' willingness (or lack thereof)
to accept an Italian conditional surrender while being partners of the
Germans all the way and fending off their suspicions was worse than
treading on eggs, and preparations for a "switch of sides" would not
have passed unnoticed.

Partly, while by 1943 a total Axis defeat appeared to be likely, it was
not an absolutely safe bet yet, and that had to be taken into account in
political calculations. What if the Germans had been somehow able to
snatch a draw or a negotiated armistice out of their growingly desperate
position? By striking a deal with Stalin, or by repelling a major Allied
invasion attempt. Those possibilities couldn't be ruled out, hence the
wavering up at the top of Italian policy making.
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
It was known Italian morale was low, and the allies did things like
a series of bomber raids on Italian targets in July and August,
including by Bomber Command.
Morale was low, but it was not beyond recovery. A seldom recalled little
episode: for a couple days after the invasion of Sicily on July 10th
1943, rumors reached the Italian mainland of Allied landings thrown back
into the sea with heavy losses. Before the true news of the landings'
success was broken to the nation, there was a degree of morale upsurge
across the nation, recorded by several sources.
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
So in divisional terms the allies probably had a 1.5 to 1 or better
advantage.....
Is the idea the Italians will hold open the northern ports, and also
hold off the Luftwaffe? Plus provide extra shipping?
That was the idea.
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
So how are the German forces already in Italy removed?
What made things immensely easier for the Germans in September 1943 was
the so far totally unexpected and unthinkable breakdown and collapse of
the Italian Army and Air Force (what was left of the latter anyway) and
of the government and the State. Caused by the mismanagement of the
surrender and armistice process, of which the Italians bear the blame
the most of course, but the Allies are not completely blameless either.

The collapse was entirely unforeseeable until it came about. The
scenario previously envisioned was that of a coordinated Allied and
Italian action including Allied landings (not amphibious assaults, but
"peaceful" landings in ports or unopposed disembarkations on friendly
shores) and Italians cutting the Germans off, attacking them everywhere
and delaying their movements long enough for the Allies to establish
themselves in force. Had that worked out, the Germans would have had no
alternative but extricating their units from the peninsula, more or less
as they would later do in Finland for instance.

A real life case in point might be Corsica. In Corsica the Italian
garrison didn't melt away or just stand idle, as in Sardinia, but it
fought back vigorously, inflicting considerable losses on the Germans (a
corvette wiped out an entire German troop convoy off the port of Bastia
almost single-handedly). The latter's tough reaction caused severe
losses and drove the Italians off the coast into the inland part of the
island, but they survived to regroup. Shortly afterwards an Allied -
mostly French - force landed on Corsica, joined up with the Italians in
the hills overlooking the eastern coast and together they cracked the
German defensive line outside Bastia and recaptured it, although the
bulk of the German garrison had already been ferried to the mainland.
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
What exactly is massive support?
The Allies at Salerno survived all the Germans could throw at them
(which was pretty much in terms of firepower and attack strength)
unaided by any Italian "cover screen" and delaying / partisan actions.
One can surmise things would have gone all the better for them, and all
the worse for the Germans, in case of organized Italian support.
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
Even if the Italian army fights the Germans how will that ensure
the Germans are out of Italy by the end of 1943?
No certainty there. Wars are not riskless propositions...

Haydn
Bill
2014-06-14 16:25:36 UTC
Permalink
Post by Haydn
Top level
meetings of British, German, US and Italian financiers and CEOs all
sitting around the same table took place throughout the war.
Cite please.
Geoffrey Sinclair
2014-06-15 18:25:20 UTC
Permalink
Post by Haydn
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
How exactly is a war in Italy to be avoided, is the idea the Italian
Government will subdue the German forces all the way to the
Alps? Even then is it possible the allies would use the bases
to try and strike into France, Austria and/or Yugoslavia?
You have assumed a great deal, you really need to see if the
assumptions are correct. What peace feelers were put out
by the Italian government while Mussolini was still in power?
Scads of them, since mid-1942 and increasingly since Alamein (which was
really experienced as a turning point). Badoglio put out his feelers.
So as the war was going well for the axis in 1942 the Italians were
putting out what you define as peace feelers, were the 1942 ones
about allied surrenders?

Could we please have a definition of "scads"?
Post by Haydn
The Royal House put out its feelers, mainly through courtesy of Princess
Maria Jose, wife of the heir to the Crown. And others, the Fascist regime
included, did likewise. Through Switzerland or other channels.
So what is defined as a peace feeler, a diplomatic conversation?

Was anything formally discussed by the Italian government, things
like minimum terms and some sort of terms passed onto the allies?

Or are we talking about encounters that are now classified as peace
discussions?

For example how do they compare with the Japanese efforts in
1945 via the USSR?
Post by Haydn
Wars, even world wars, don't stop politics and business being done between
enemy coalitions. It's naive to assume the opposite.
Actually it does stop business quite effectively, thanks to things like
cutting contacts.
Post by Haydn
Top level meetings of British, German, US and Italian financiers and CEOs
all sitting around the same table took place throughout the war. Money,
especially, has no country it proudly belongs to.
So please spell out these top level discussions, how many, when
and where? There were few places the above nationalities could
all reach easily.

How many of the US-axis contacts were pre December 1941?
Post by Haydn
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
How much support did the then government give them?
The government, ie. Mussolini, either allowed them, or took part in them.
Yet surprisingly there seems little to show for it, the various
terms and conditions, the formal meetings of representatives
authorised to discuss terms.

Where are the documents? The formal reports from say
ambassadors?
Post by Haydn
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
So far as I can tell the attempts to surrender started after
Mussolini was removed from power.
Not the case, as I wrote above.
Actually all you have stated is some people were talking and
you have described them as peace feelers which are meant
to be taken seriously and over a period of time where the
axis went from apparently nearly going to win to taking
significant defeats. Which would mean the terms should
change.
Post by Haydn
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
And also the new
government did not make preparations that gave them a
chance to bring the army over to the allied side.
That's because partly, probing the Allies' willingness (or lack thereof)
to accept an Italian conditional surrender while being partners of the
Germans all the way and fending off their suspicions was worse than
treading on eggs, and preparations for a "switch of sides" would not have
passed unnoticed.
Which makes it rather hard to do what was really needed, hold the
German forces off for at least several days to a few weeks to give
the allies the time to transport troops and supplies to Italy.

Without that the allies are going to stay within allied air cover,
which means Salerno.
Post by Haydn
Partly, while by 1943 a total Axis defeat appeared to be likely, it was
not an absolutely safe bet yet, and that had to be taken into account in
political calculations. What if the Germans had been somehow able to
snatch a draw or a negotiated armistice out of their growingly desperate
position? By striking a deal with Stalin, or by repelling a major Allied
invasion attempt. Those possibilities couldn't be ruled out, hence the
wavering up at the top of Italian policy making.
No, the wavering was not about those sorts of ifs, the removal of
Mussolini was quite a decisive action, after that the ifs were mainly
about exiting the war with minimal loss to Italy. Quite sensible
ideas but to deliver they needed the Italian military to do significant
fighting on the side of the allies.
Post by Haydn
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
It was known Italian morale was low, and the allies did things like
a series of bomber raids on Italian targets in July and August,
including by Bomber Command.
Morale was low, but it was not beyond recovery. A seldom recalled little
episode: for a couple days after the invasion of Sicily on July 10th 1943,
rumors reached the Italian mainland of Allied landings thrown back into
the sea with heavy losses. Before the true news of the landings' success
was broken to the nation, there was a degree of morale upsurge across the
nation, recorded by several sources.
Which would be followed by a crash when the report was found
to be fiction.
Post by Haydn
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
So in divisional terms the allies probably had a 1.5 to 1 or better
advantage.....
Is the idea the Italians will hold open the northern ports, and also
hold off the Luftwaffe? Plus provide extra shipping?
That was the idea.
How? At the very least they need to secure the airbases in northern
Italy to stop the Luftwaffe being able to heavily attack the allied
merchant ships, also the Italian ships need to make allied ports
and spend several days or more loading then return to Italy.

As noted before in a well equipped port it took about 3 weeks
to fully load and then fully unload a merchant ship.

The allies were short of shipping and have no air cover beyond
around Salerno, hence why they chose the place.

How far north could an allied convoy go and be safe from
air attack? How about how far north say a corps of troops
could be landed without being hit by superior forces while
finding its supply lines under heavy air attack? The sort
of attack that drives off the supporting warships.
Post by Haydn
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
So how are the German forces already in Italy removed?
What made things immensely easier for the Germans in September 1943 was
the so far totally unexpected and unthinkable breakdown and collapse of
the Italian Army and Air Force (what was left of the latter anyway) and of
the government and the State. Caused by the mismanagement of the surrender
and armistice process, of which the Italians bear the blame the most of
course, but the Allies are not completely blameless either.
That is not an answer, the German forces in Italy were strong enough
to be difficult to dislodge and had open supply lines to Germany. To
minimise the chances of Italian loss the Italian military needed to fight,
the fact the Italian government did not even try this showed the allies
were rather correct in their actions. The big mistake was telling the
troops before Salerno of the surrender, given what awaited them.
Post by Haydn
The collapse was entirely unforeseeable until it came about.
It was quite foreseeable, leave the military leaderless and it will
disintegrate, telling people to stop shooting the enemy and
start shooting the allies tends to provoke confusion at least.

Lots of Italian soldiers took the announcement as time to
go home.
Post by Haydn
The scenario previously envisioned was that of a coordinated Allied and
Italian action including Allied landings (not amphibious assaults, but
"peaceful" landings in ports or unopposed disembarkations on friendly
shores) and Italians cutting the Germans off, attacking them everywhere
and delaying their movements long enough for the Allies to establish
themselves in force. Had that worked out, the Germans would have had no
alternative but extricating their units from the peninsula, more or less
as they would later do in Finland for instance.
Simply put you are dreaming. Start with the allies had enough shipping
to move the Salerno force, the requirement for near immediate combat
after arrival significantly increases the amount of shipping needed.

They could not funnel many more men and in particular the heavy
equipment into Italy quickly enough. Then add how supply intensive
air forces are, along with necessary things like radar stations.

The Italians had around 21 divisions in Italy, plus the various other
troops, about a million men, the Germans as noted before 16, but
only about 400,000 men all up.
Post by Haydn
A real life case in point might be Corsica.
Or Kos and Leros.
Post by Haydn
In Corsica the Italian garrison didn't melt away or just stand idle, as
in Sardinia, but it fought back vigorously, inflicting considerable losses
on the Germans (a corvette wiped out an entire German troop convoy off the
port of Bastia almost single-handedly). The latter's tough reaction caused
severe losses and drove the Italians off the coast into the inland part of
the island, but they survived to regroup. Shortly afterwards an Allied -
mostly French - force landed on Corsica, joined up with the Italians in
the hills overlooking the eastern coast and together they cracked the
German defensive line outside Bastia and recaptured it, although the bulk
of the German garrison had already been ferried to the mainland.
The Germans had about 12,000 men on Corsica, the Italians 85,000,
lack of shipping and allied air and naval power meant the Germans
had trouble sending more troops. In any case the German plan was
to get the troops out of Sardinia, then evacuate Corsica. There are
around 40,000 Germans in Sardinia. All they needed was the areas
needed for evacuation, which they achieved.

The French resistance movement was active.

On 3 September 8th Army crosses into Italy.

On 8 September the surrender was announced, fighting in Corsica starts
almost immediately. Though much of that is the French fighting the
Germans.

On 9 September the allies landed at Salerno and Taranto, the latter
is mostly airborne troops transported in warships.

By 13 September the Germans had won the main battle in Corsica

On 14 September French commandos were landed in Corsica from a
submarine. The French force is built up to around 6,000 men over the
next two weeks using French destroyers, then later cruisers including
2 Italian ones.

By 15 September the allies think they are now not going to lose
at Salerno. On 16 September 8th Army units contact 5th army ones.

On 18 September the new allied commander of Sardinia arrived
at Cagliari.

On 21 September the Germans have evacuated Sardinia.

On 4 October the last Germans leave Corsica.
Post by Haydn
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
What exactly is massive support?
The Allies at Salerno survived all the Germans could throw at them (which
was pretty much in terms of firepower and attack strength) unaided by any
Italian "cover screen" and delaying / partisan actions.
You mean the SS panzer divisions under Rommel came south?

All 14 or so German divisions in Italy went south?

The allies certainly threw just about all they could back at the
Germans at Salerno. Spreading the allied force out would
most likely result in lots more allied losses.

Simply put the Germans did not want to go far south because
of allied strength, similarly the allies did not want to go too far
north because of German strength.

With Overlord firmly on the agenda the Mediterranean
theatre was going to have forces removed, not extra ones
added.
Post by Haydn
One can surmise things would have gone all the better for them, and all
the worse for the Germans, in case of organized Italian support.
I agree, given the above adds to allied capabilities without adding
to German ones. I still have trouble finding anything much more than
the historical 1944 winter line being reached in winter 1943.

The Germans had the ability to control Northern Italy given the
balance of forces there, which means Luftwaffe bases at least.
They have the ability to move forces into Italy faster than the
allies do.

Solid evidence Italy could fight and hold ground might convince
the allies to tray for Anzio instead of Salerno, I really doubt
any allied commander would want to go further north unless
it was clear the Germans were evacuating. And even Anzio
would requite solid evidence airfields in the areas could be
occupied and kept allied, enough for good fighter cover over
the forces and convoys.
Post by Haydn
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
Even if the Italian army fights the Germans how will that ensure
the Germans are out of Italy by the end of 1943?
No certainty there. Wars are not riskless propositions...
And in the scramble for Italy the Germans are in the better position
versus the allies.

Geoffrey Sinclair
Remove the nb for email.
S***@argo.rhein-neckar.de
2014-06-16 14:40:37 UTC
Permalink
Post by Haydn
What made things immensely easier for the Germans in September 1943 was
the so far totally unexpected and unthinkable breakdown and collapse of
the Italian Army and Air Force (what was left of the latter anyway) and
of the government and the State. Caused by the mismanagement of the
surrender and armistice process, of which the Italians bear the blame
the most of course, but the Allies are not completely blameless either.
Well, according what I read Hitler got the crucial Italian talks with the
Allied from Roosevelt and Churchill direct. They mentioned too much in a
transatlantic radio telephon talk. It was known to US/UK intel that Germany
was able to decipher the telephon. Nevertheless FDR and WSC still talked
too much. Are this talk protocols published by now? Would be interesting
whether FDR or WSC did the mistake. Is there a chance that WSC did it not
by mistake?



## CrossPoint v3.12d R ##
Geoffrey Sinclair
2014-06-16 17:24:22 UTC
Permalink
Post by S***@argo.rhein-neckar.de
Post by Haydn
What made things immensely easier for the Germans in September 1943 was
the so far totally unexpected and unthinkable breakdown and collapse of
the Italian Army and Air Force (what was left of the latter anyway) and
of the government and the State. Caused by the mismanagement of the
surrender and armistice process, of which the Italians bear the blame
the most of course, but the Allies are not completely blameless either.
Well, according what I read Hitler got the crucial Italian talks with the
Allied from Roosevelt and Churchill direct. They mentioned too much in a
transatlantic radio telephon talk.
No, as usual you take a basic fact and then exaggerate it into some
conspiracy.
Post by S***@argo.rhein-neckar.de
It was known to US/UK intel that Germany
was able to decipher the telephon.
So let me understand this, the allies knew the Germans could
decipher the phone calls so all the calls were all fakes? So the
Italian call was a fake?

Make up your mind, either the allies knew and so used it for
disinformation or they did not know and used it for real
information.
Post by S***@argo.rhein-neckar.de
Nevertheless FDR and WSC still talked
too much. Are this talk protocols published by now? Would be interesting
whether FDR or WSC did the mistake. Is there a chance that WSC did it not
by mistake?
So nice to see you have several conspiracies developed and
ready to go, one fact, so many possible conspiracies.

There is at least one work out loaded with fake messages said to
be from the phone conversations. There are other works that
deal with the fact the Germans managed to crack the encryption,
intercept quite a number of calls and end up with almost zero
actionable intelligence. Discussions on Lend-Lease and high
level shipping allocations were nice but not really helpful, in
any case they were using agreed agendas and references
to keep the real information to a minimum. "Re your point
5 we think we need 10% more".

Mussolini was removed from power on 25 July, the Germans promptly
took control of all the passes from Italy to France and Austria. Hitler
started asking that SS divisions be transferred to Italy. Plans were
developed to take control of the country.

On 29 July the Germans managed to intercept a radio telephone
conversation between FDR and Churchill, during the call they
discussed Italy in the usual cryptic way the calls were carried out.
The Germans interpreted it as Italy was already in contact with the
allies and wanting to surrender, when in fact the approaches had
not yet been made.

Amusing what appears in newspapers,

http://annesebba.com/journalism/cut-that-out-mr-churchill/

http://trove.nla.gov.au/ndp/del/article/48767105

There are claims the Germans decoded the message the Italian
Government sent in September 1943 accepting the allied terms.

Geoffrey Sinclair
Remove the nb for email.
Geoffrey Sinclair
2014-06-10 15:12:18 UTC
Permalink
As happens every year here in the US, we are seeing some news articles on
the run-up to the D-Day commemoration in Normandy.
What we aren't seeing any mention of is the Italian campaign, with the
occupation of Rome occurring seventy years ago today, or various Pacific
Ocean campaigns, such as the on-going fighting in New Guinea or the
preparations for the invasion of the Marianas, or the fighting in
Southeast Asia.
Apart from the excuse for various leaders to have an informal set of
summits, (Australia sent its Prime Minister, the delegation including
media and veterans is somewhat comparable, size wise, to the
number of Australians, mainly in the air force, who fought on D-Day)
the key is ongoing in the other campaigns.

D-Day is a quite dramatic change in the nature of operations in
what is usually considered the main theatre, the others have their
key dates but nothing as significant a change. The operation
itself was probably the only make or break attack the western
allies launched, in that if it failed it would profoundly alter the
course of the war.

Besides there is not as much requirement for informal summits
of leaders in the Pacific and it would come with reminders of
how many were colonies at the time. And VE day anniversaries
are more problematical for the Germans than D-Day.

In looking at dates what other wars are remembered at all or
only when they started or ended?

Geoffrey Sinclair
Remove the nb for email.
Roman W
2014-06-11 17:08:21 UTC
Permalink
On Tue, 10 Jun 2014 11:12:18 -0400, "Geoffrey Sinclair"
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
In looking at dates what other wars are remembered at all or
only when they started or ended?
The one which started 100 years ago.

RW
Stephen Graham
2014-06-11 18:52:52 UTC
Permalink
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
Besides there is not as much requirement for informal summits
of leaders in the Pacific and it would come with reminders of
how many were colonies at the time. And VE day anniversaries
are more problematical for the Germans than D-Day.
Well, the unofficial D-Day summit has always struck me as being a bit
odd. I wouldn't expect anything like it elsewhere. My point was more
that you see little media coverage or other commemoration of anything
beyond: Pearl Harbor, D-Day, and an annual mention of the Russian
commemoration of VE Day.
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
In looking at dates what other wars are remembered at all or
only when they started or ended?
The Canadians do pay some attention to Dieppe annually. And there was
coverage of the 70th anniversary of the Sicily landings.
Michael Emrys
2014-06-11 21:05:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by Stephen Graham
The Canadians do pay some attention to Dieppe annually. And there was
coverage of the 70th anniversary of the Sicily landings.
I understand that coverage of Battle of Britain Day still gets a lot of
attention in the UK and also worldwide among aviation buffs.

Michael
Bill
2014-06-11 21:36:23 UTC
Permalink
Post by Michael Emrys
Post by Stephen Graham
The Canadians do pay some attention to Dieppe annually. And there was
coverage of the 70th anniversary of the Sicily landings.
I understand that coverage of Battle of Britain Day still gets a lot of
attention in the UK
Not really these days.

Just about all the veterans are gone now.

All that happens is a couple of old films get put on TV and there
might be a church service in thanks televised.
WJHopwood
2014-06-12 04:54:43 UTC
Permalink
Post by Stephen Graham
Well, the unofficial D-Day summit has always struck me as being a bit
odd. I wouldn't expect anything like it elsewhere. My point was more
that you see little media coverage or other commemoration of anything
beyond: Pearl Harbor, D-Day, and an annual mention of the Russian
commemoration of VE Day.
In my view the emphasis on D-Day was, and still is, a matter of geographic
circumstance and historical perspective. Although after Pearl Harbor the
American public got an abundance of news about what was happening in
the Pacific theatre before Pearl Harbor that was not the case. On the East
coast in particular, where the larger number of Americans of European
heritage lived, the headquarters of most of the national news organizations
(press and radio) were located, and where the U.S. center of government
existed, news of what was happening in Europe drew more public interest
long before the existence of a Japanese problem attracted attention.

The war in Europe started in 1939 and in 1940 at the peak of the London
Blitz, Americans in the Eastern and Central time zones sat down to dinner
each evening to the short-wave voices of Edward R. Murrow from London,
Eric Sevareid from Paris, and William L. Shirer from Berlin. Nothing like that
came from the activities of Japan in Asia. Few knew or cared about Japan
until after Pearl Harbor.

If one Googles for information on the number of Americans killed in all
the major battles in our country's history, Wiki comes up with some
interesting statistics:
For instance, close to 3 times as many Americans were killed in
major European battles (61,600) than in major battles in the Pacific
(23,000). On D-Day and the subsequent battle of Normandy alone,
there were 17,700 American deaths. That was over 75% of the American
deaths in all the major battles of the Pacific war combined.
Post by Stephen Graham
From sheer size and Allied casualties alone, the Battle of the Bulge
led the European list with over 19,000 American deaths. D-Day/Normandy
was a close second with its 17,000 American deaths.

D-cay was a singular spectacular news event, a major casualty event, and,
with the sole exception of the Battle of the Bulge, probably affected the
lives of more Americans than any other battle fought by the U.S. in all of
WWII. Thus it would seem fitting that the commemoration of D-Day
attract the media attention it always does.

WJH
Rich
2014-06-12 14:36:33 UTC
Permalink
Post by WJHopwood
If one Googles for information on the number of Americans killed in all
the major battles in our country's history, Wiki comes up with some
As usual, I am skeptical of using Wiki statistics, interesting or not.

Since after about 20 years of working in Operations Research, I am
still not clear what qualifies as a "major battle", I decided to look
at just what the battle deaths by theater were.

In the European and Mediterranean theaters, U.S. Army (including
USAAF) battle deaths were 176,031. In Pacific theaters they were
50,385.

For the U.S. Navy, battle deaths in Atlantic, Mediterranean, and
U.S. waters (effectively the East Coast, Gulf, and Caribbean, but
possibly some deaths on the West Coast and Alaska) were 5,793. In
Pacific and Asiatic waters they were 31,157.

Coast Guard battle deaths were 574, but I have not discovered a
theater breakdown.
WJHopwood
2014-06-12 21:53:46 UTC
Permalink
Post by Rich
Post by WJHopwood
If one Googles for information on the number of Americans killed in all
the major battles in our country's history, Wiki comes up with some
As usual, I am skeptical of using Wiki statistics, interesting or not.
...I am still not clear what qualifies as a "major battle", I decided to
look at just what the battle deaths by theater were. In the European
and Mediterranean theaters, U.S. Army...were 176,031. In Pacific
theaters they were 50,385....U.S. Navy, battle deaths in Atlantic,
Mediterranean, and U.S. waters...were 5,793. In Pacific and Asiatic
waters they were 31,157. Coast Guard battle deaths were 574....
My death figures were for "major battles" while yours were for total battle
deaths by area and don't discriminate between battles with high death
rates vis-a-vis those with lower death rates. So, we are essentially
comparing Apples with Oranges.

I'm also hesitant to quote Wiki but off-hand theirs were the only
numbers I could find showing the ranking of battles by number of U.S.
deaths. As for the definition of a major battle, that seems easy to
determine if one measures by death rate alone as Wiki was doing.

There were two other WWII battles I did not list. Each had approx 12,000
U,.S.deaths-Okinawa, and Hurtgen Forest, All the other engagements listed
by Wiki as "lethal" (and they were numerous) contained U.S deaths far less
than 10,000 each, including such as Iwo Jima, Anzio, Saipan, Sicily, Pearl
Harbor itself, and a few others.

As for actual figures, you don't show your source but I have consolidated
your "death by area" numbers into totals by armed service and these are
the total battle deaths you show:
Armiy (including Air Force)--226,416; Navy---36,950; Coast Guard
---574. Total for all WWii Battle Deaths per your numbers are--263,940.
Did you miss the Marine Corps? Or did you include the Marine deaths in
yuur Navy total?

Now I did some research on total U.S. battle deaths using a different
source than Wiki and find some discrepancies between my figures and
yours. Incidentlly, my source is from a Dept. of Defense schedule with
the title "Principal Wars in Which the United States Participated,
U.S. Military Personnel Serving, and Casualties, " Table 2-23,
prepared by "Washington Headquarters Services, Directorate for
Information Operations and Reports."

Here is what that table shows Battle Deaths in WWII---Army 234,874;
Navy 36,950; Marines 19,733. Total; 291,557. (The Coast Guard
was part of the Navy in WWII)
My total of 291,557 disagrees with your total of 263,940
by 27,617 battle deaths. Which one of us is right? Could it be the
missing Marines from your total? But my numbers show the
Marine battle deaths were only 19,733 not 27,617. Even if we
counted your missing Marines using my Marine total we would
still have a disagreement of some 7000 U.S. battle deaths in WWII.


WJH
Rich
2014-06-13 03:31:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by WJHopwood
My death figures were for "major battles" while yours were for total battle
deaths by area and don't discriminate between battles with high death
rates vis-a-vis those with lower death rates. So, we are essentially
comparing Apples with Oranges.
Oh, they are ***your*** figures? I thought they were Wiki's?

Aside from that you haven't bothered to address the very simple
issue I raised: what is a "major battle"? And now to that I can add:
which battles have "higher death rates" and which have "lower death
rates"? What does that mean? Do yo have a metric? What is it?

Given that I spent 20-odd years in Operations Research studying
such things I am curious what your definition is and how you
derived "high" and "low"?
Post by WJHopwood
I'm also hesitant to quote Wiki but off-hand theirs were the only
numbers I could find showing the ranking of battles by number of U.S.
deaths. As for the definition of a major battle, that seems easy to
determine if one measures by death rate alone as Wiki was doing.
Where is this list? What is the link? What is on the list? What is the
definition? If it is easy, why don't you give it?
Post by WJHopwood
There were two other WWII battles I did not list. Each had approx 12,000
U,.S.deaths-Okinawa, and Hurtgen Forest, All the other engagements listed
by Wiki as "lethal" (and they were numerous) contained U.S deaths far less
than 10,000 each, including such as Iwo Jima, Anzio, Saipan, Sicily, Pearl
Harbor itself, and a few others.
Those are not "rates", they are simply raw numbers. Nor are they a
set of "battles" as is commonly accepted - most are campaigns. I
know it seems a fine distinction, but if you want to compare rates and
not apples to oranges, you need to have a reasonable data set. That set
is so variable in terms of size of forces, geographic area, and time
frame as to be almost meaningless.
Post by WJHopwood
As for actual figures, you don't show your source but I have consolidated
your "death by area" numbers into totals by armed service and these are
Armiy (including Air Force)--226,416; Navy---36,950; Coast Guard
---574. Total for all WWii Battle Deaths per your numbers are--263,940.
Did you miss the Marine Corps? Or did you include the Marine deaths in
yuur Navy total?
The U.S. Army figures are from "Army Battle Casualties and Non-
Battle Deaths", U.S. Army Adjutant General, 1952. The Navy figures are
from "Annual Report, Navy and Marine Corps Military Personnel Statistics,
30 June 1964", prepared by the Bureau of Naval Personnel. I neglected
to include the casualties of the USMC. They are recorded by campaign
and are incomplete, only six battle deaths are recorded in the European
Campaigns.
Post by WJHopwood
Now I did some research on total U.S. battle deaths using a different
source than Wiki and find some discrepancies between my figures and
yours. Incidentlly, my source is from a Dept. of Defense schedule with
the title "Principal Wars in Which the United States Participated,
U.S. Military Personnel Serving, and Casualties, " Table 2-23,
prepared by "Washington Headquarters Services, Directorate for
Information Operations and Reports."
Yes, I am very familiar with that office and its changing site. It's
transparency has decreased markedly over the years.
Post by WJHopwood
Here is what that table shows Battle Deaths in WWII---Army 234,874;
Navy 36,950; Marines 19,733. Total; 291,557. (The Coast Guard
was part of the Navy in WWII)
"234,874" is total Army battle deaths, which includes 8,458 from
"all other theaters" including "theater unknown".

Your Navy figure is exactly the same as I gave.

The Coast Guard was under the command of the Navy, but the Navy
figures are for USN, USNR, and WAVES only, it does not include
the separate figures for the Coast Guard or for the Marines.

The Navy also records 19,733 KIA for the USMC. However, KIA is not
the same as battle deaths. Gordon Rottman finds that 21,242 Marines
were KIA, DOW, or were MIAPD. There were also 2,274 Marines counted
as PW,of whom 268 died and 250 are unaccounted for and are presumed
dead. However, it is unclear if they are included in his previous total.

(snip)
Rich
2014-06-13 16:04:15 UTC
Permalink
Post by Rich
Those are not "rates", they are simply raw numbers. Nor are they a
set of "battles" as is commonly accepted - most are campaigns. I
know it seems a fine distinction, but if you want to compare rates and
not apples to oranges, you need to have a reasonable data set. That set
is so variable in terms of size of forces, geographic area, and time
frame as to be almost meaningless.
To finish my train of thought, since it was getting late last night...

There were 2,403 killed and 1,178 wounded in the Pearl Harbor attack. That
is a count though, it isn't a "rate". There were about 75,000 military
personnel on Oahu on that day. So a rate of 4.77% per day - very high
intensity for what is essentially a corps-sized force.

There were 57,095 battle casualties in the Huertgen Forest. Out of six
divisions, which with attachments totaled about 105,000...so very high,
except that instead of occurring on one day the campaign extended from
11 September to 15 December 1944. 95 days, so a rate of 0.6% per day.
Not as high, but still actually pretty high for what is again a corps-
sized force.

Or you could look at the 112th Infantry in the Huertgen, which reported
1,204 battle casualties for the 30 days of November, against a strength
of nominally 3,207, so 1.25% per day...except that virtually all those
casualties occurred between 4 and 14 November, so was closer to 3.75%.
That is fairly intense for a regiment and was likely higher still on
days like 9 November, when the 2nd Battalion was smashed at Schmidt.

And so on. Those are rates, which can be used to define battle intensity.
They are very different from raw casualty totals, which lose meaning
when taken out of context.
news
2014-06-14 21:35:32 UTC
Permalink
Post by Rich
There were 2,403 killed and 1,178 wounded in the Pearl Harbor attack. That
is a count though, it isn't a "rate". There were about 75,000 military
personnel on Oahu on that day. So a rate of 4.77% per day - very high
intensity for what is essentially a corps-sized force.
And so on. Those are rates, which can be used to define battle intensity.
They are very different from raw casualty totals, which lose meaning
when taken out of context.
I'm not sure you can necessarily equate rates this way particularly
with respect to naval actions.

Lose a single BB or BC and you've lost a minimum of 2000 men in a
single day which will be a very high rate. (I'm thinking of HMS Hood
or Repulse or Prince of Wales or for that matter Arizona)

Have a single CV that sustains no damage but loses 100 pilots over a
three month period (I'm exaggerating to make a point but am thinking
of things like the Enterprise in 1943) and at least in rate terms it's
a low-intensity conflict.

Similarly for submarine warfare - a LOT of the casualties in PQ-17
were due to ships sunk in extremely cold waters meaning there were few
survivors. Ship losses like the Athenia would be very "low intensity"
since at most 10% of the passengers and crew perished.

My point is that use of rates in calculating intensity of combat
really breaks down when evaluating naval warfare - which with the
greatest respect for General Short and his men is what Pearl Harbor
primarily was.
Rich
2014-06-15 18:25:01 UTC
Permalink
Post by news
I'm not sure you can necessarily equate rates this way particularly
with respect to naval actions.
Oh, of course, I tried to give a simplified answer suitable for a
simple reader to understand. ;)
Post by news
Lose a single BB or BC and you've lost a minimum of 2000 men in a
single day which will be a very high rate. (I'm thinking of HMS Hood
or Repulse or Prince of Wales or for that matter Arizona)
Very true. I used the Pearl Harbor versus Huertgen Forest example partly
to illustrate the inherent complexities in such comparisons. You can
also use it as an example of drilling down into the subject. Pearl
Harbor was intense for the military in general on Oahu that day; it
was more intense for the Navy (in terms of personnel losses) than the
Army, while similar in intensity (in terms of equipment losses) for
The USAAF units and the Battle Force; it was astronomically intense
for the Arizona.
Post by news
Have a single CV that sustains no damage but loses 100 pilots over a
three month period (I'm exaggerating to make a point but am thinking
of things like the Enterprise in 1943) and at least in rate terms it's
a low-intensity conflict.
Indeed. In that respect the better measure is crew losses per sortie
and it would similarly be a better metric for Air Force operations and
generally is the one used. Ground forces intensities are usually most
easily calculated by personnel engaged...and it generally works well
at the 30,000-foot strategic level of conflict as well.
Post by news
Similarly for submarine warfare - a LOT of the casualties in PQ-17
were due to ships sunk in extremely cold waters meaning there were few
survivors. Ship losses like the Athenia would be very "low intensity"
since at most 10% of the passengers and crew perished.
Was that "submarine warfare"? Eight of the 15 lost ships in PQ-17
were to the Luftwaffe remember? And it was the threat of naval surface
action in part that drove the scattering, which in turn drove the losses.

In any case, yes, you have to adapt your metrics to the case study.
Post by news
My point is that use of rates in calculating intensity of combat
really breaks down when evaluating naval warfare - which with the
greatest respect for General Short and his men is what Pearl Harbor
primarily was.
Certainly with 2,718 Navy versus 582 Army casualties you could
say that Pearl Harbor was predominately a "naval battle"...except
it was an aerial attack. :)

And again, in terms of calculating intensity in personnel terms Pearl
Harbor remains a workable and reasonable case. Other naval or air
battles may need other measurements to calculate ratios, but that does
not mean it cannot be done with the some thought.
news
2014-06-15 19:48:25 UTC
Permalink
Post by Rich
Certainly with 2,718 Navy versus 582 Army casualties you could
say that Pearl Harbor was predominately a "naval battle"...except
it was an aerial attack. :)
Well so was the sinking of the Prince of Wales and also Midway. I also
referred to the Hood which can reasonably be considered in relation to
the Bismarck.
Post by Rich
And again, in terms of calculating intensity in personnel terms Pearl
Harbor remains a workable and reasonable case. Other naval or air
battles may need other measurements to calculate ratios, but that does
not mean it cannot be done with the some thought.
Well again - naval engagements tend to face large casualties if
capital ships are sunk which tend to happen in a single day if at all.
Rich
2014-06-15 20:31:41 UTC
Permalink
Post by news
Well so was the sinking of the Prince of Wales and also Midway. I also
referred to the Hood which can reasonably be considered in relation to
the Bismarck.
Indeed, and I don't argue that it is problematic...but it still can be
done so long as you use the correct metric. However, we solved the problem
by primarily contracting with Department of the Army, who had remarkably
little interest in Naval - or Air - combat. :)
Post by news
Well again - naval engagements tend to face large casualties if
capital ships are sunk which tend to happen in a single day if at all.
Yes, they do. And those engagements tend to be relatively quick and
very intense. :)
Rich Rostrom
2014-06-17 05:03:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by Rich
Yes, they do. And those engagements tend to be relatively quick and
very intense. :)
Cruiser and destroyer actions could be
"quick and intense", especially at
night. Think Ironbottom Sound. The
metaphor I found most appropriate for
that campaign was "A series of knife
fights in a phone booth."
--
The real Velvet Revolution - and the would-be hijacker.

http://originalvelvetrevolution.com
WJHopwood
2014-06-13 18:23:16 UTC
Permalink
Sorry for Long Lines
On Thursday, June 12, 2014 11:31:35 PM UTC-4,
On Thursday, June 12, 2014 5:53:46 PM UTC-4,
Post by WJHopwood
My death figures were for "major battles" while
yours were for total battle deaths by area and don't
discriminate between battles with high deat
rates vis-a-vis those with lower death rates. So, we
are essentially comparing Apples with Oranges.
Oh, they are ***your*** figures? I thought they were
Wiki's?
I think you know very well what I meant.
Aside from that you haven't bothered to address the
very simple issue I raised: what is a "major battle"?.... ....
Of course I did. You even quote my explanation in the
third paragraph below.
...And now to that I can add:which battles have "higher
death rates" and which have "lower death rates"? What
does that mean? Do yo have a metric? What is it? Given
that I spent 20-odd years in Operations Research
studying such things I am curious what your definition is
and how you derived "high" and "low"?
They are comparative figures, a matter of degree, subject to
the judgement of the individual making the evaluation. I don't
believe it requires the scientific analysis of a complex
decision-making process which your self-credited expertise
seems to feel is required. So let me simplify it for you. If I
happen to think that one hundred dollars is a sum signifcantly
greater than ten dollars. I believe most reasonable people would
agree with that. If you believe otherwise, that's your problem.
Post by WJHopwood
....As for the definition of a major battle, that seems easy to
determine if one measures by death rate alone as Wiki was
doing.
Where is this list? What is the link? What is on the list? What is
the definition? If it is easy, why don't you give it?
Right here. I thought you would never ask. Of course, you could
have found it yourself with a simple Google:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Most_lethal_American_battles
Post by WJHopwood
There were two other WWII battles I did not list. Each had
approx 12,000 U,.S.deaths-Okinawa, and Hurtgen Forest,
All the other engagements listed by Wiki as "lethal" (and
they were numerous) contained U.S deaths far less
than 10,000 each, including such as Iwo Jima, Anzio, Saipan,
Sicily, Pearl Harbor itself, and a few others.
Those are not "rates", they are simply raw numbers. Nor are
they a set of "battles" as is commonly accepted - most are
campaigns. I know it seems a fine distinction, but if you want
to compare rates and not apples to oranges, you need to have
a reasonable data set. That set is so variable in terms of size
of forces, geographic area, and time frame as to be almost
meaningless.
That's academic nonsense. Raw numbers or not I think it
reasonable to contend that the battles I listed as "major" because
of the comparative total number of U.S. deaths involved, are indeed
relevant in connection with lethal comparability. If you want to
nit-pick about whether or not an action is a "battle" or a "campaign,"
be my guest.
Post by WJHopwood
Army (including Air Force)--226,416; Navy---36,950;
Coast Guard ---574. Total for all WWii Battle Deaths per
your numbers are --263,940.
Did you miss the Marine Corps? Or did you include the Marine
deaths in your Navy total?
The U.S. Army figures are from "Army Battle Casualties and Non-
Battle Deaths", U.S. Army Adjutant General, 1952. The Navy figures
are from "Annual Report, Navy and Marine Corps Military Personnel
Statistics, 30 June 1964", prepared by the Bureau of Naval Personnel.
I neglected to include the casualties of the USMC. They are recorded
by campaign and are incomplete, only six battle deaths are recorded
in the European Campaigns.
Not a very enlightening source in my view when related to the subject
of this discussion which is "Battle Deaths." The word "casualties"
includes "non-battle deaths" which could be the result of illness or
accident and also could encompass those rendered "not fit for duty"
as a result of non-fatal wounds or for other reasons.
Post by WJHopwood
...I did some research on total U.S. battle deaths using a different
source than Wiki and find some discrepancies between my figures
and yours. Incidentlly, my source is from a Dept. of Defense
schedule with the title "Principal Wars in Which the United States
Participated, U.S. Military Personnel Serving, and Casualties, "
Table 2-23,.....
Yes, I am very familiar with that office and its changing site. It's
transparency has decreased markedly over the years.
These figures from that source seem transparent enough to me.
What Is it that you can't see or understand?
Post by WJHopwood
Here is what that table shows Battle Deaths in WWII---Army
234,874; Navy 36,950; Marines 19,733. Total; 291,557.
(The Coast Guard was part of the Navy in WWII)
"234,874" is total Army battle deaths, which includes 8,458
from "all other theaters" including "theater unknown".
So what? That has nothing to do with the subject, which is
"major battles" as deternined by the number of U.S. deaths which
occurred therein.
The Coast Guard was under the command of the Navy, but the
Navy figures are for USN, USNR, and WAVES only, it does not
include the separate figures for the Coast Guard or for the
Marines.
OK. The Coast Guard deaths were only 574. But omitting the
Marine Corps battle deaths was a significant omission from your
figures.
The Navy also records 19,733 KIA for the USMC. However, KIA
is not the same as battle deaths. Gordon Rottman finds that
21,242 Marines were KIA, DOW, or were MIAPD....
I disagree with your definition of KIA. A person classified as KIA
is defined as one killed outright on the field of battle or dies from
wounds or injury from hostile action before reaching a medical
facility. KIA is, therefore, included in the classificarion of "battle
deaths" and my DOD source lists the aforementioned 19,733
Marines as "Battle Deaths."
...There were also 2,274 Marines counted as PW,of whom 268 died
and 250 are unaccounted for and are presumed dead. However, it
is unclear if they are included in his previous total.
Only 2072 (9%) more Marines than the 19,733 are shown in the
Rottman total if all the PW's who died or were unaccounted for are
added to the 19,733 counted as battle deaths. That would increase
total battle deaths I have shown from 291,557 to 293,629 or by less
than 1%.

WJH
Rich
2014-06-14 15:53:25 UTC
Permalink
Post by WJHopwood
Post by Rich
Oh, they are ***your*** figures? I thought they were
I think you know very well what I meant.
Yes, and I think you know very well that was a joke. Or did
you need a smiley face there to make the connection?
Post by WJHopwood
Of course I did. You even quote my explanation in the
third paragraph below.
Sorry, but that is not the "definition" of a "major battle",
but is simply a ranking of data. Nor is it your "explanation"
since simply passing the buck to a Wiki ranking is not an
explanation at all.
Post by WJHopwood
They are comparative figures, a matter of degree, subject to
the judgement of the individual making the evaluation. I don't
believe it requires the scientific analysis of a complex
decision-making process which your self-credited expertise
seems to feel is required. So let me simplify it for you. If I
happen to think that one hundred dollars is a sum signifcantly
greater than ten dollars. I believe most reasonable people would
agree with that. If you believe otherwise, that's your problem.
Sorry, but yes, indeed it is a "scientific analysis" and is called
"Operations Research", which has a history as a science extending as
far back as World War I. Yes, my expertise is "self-credited" - how
could it be otherwise? Do you need my curriculum vitae to prove it?
So what is ***your*** expertise on the subject that allows you to
claim that evaluating combat intensity is a matter of simple
unthinking comparison of numbers. Is your ten dollars more significant
in the hands of a homeless man that your hundred dollars is in the
hands of a millionaire? Do most "reasonable people" believe that?
Post by WJHopwood
Right here. I thought you would never ask. Of course, you could
Thanks, but no, I couldn't find it with a quick Google and wasn't
going to waste too much time on it - you could have just as simply
supplied it in your initial post.
Post by WJHopwood
That's academic nonsense. Raw numbers or not I think it
reasonable to contend that the battles I listed as "major" because
of the comparative total number of U.S. deaths involved, are indeed
relevant in connection with lethal comparability. If you want to
nit-pick about whether or not an action is a "battle" or a "campaign,"
be my guest.
It is not "academic nonsense". You are speaking in ignorance about
an academic field field in which I have expertise.

The thrust of your initial post was about intensity, using raw
casualty numbers. Raw casualty numbers are a factor, but so are
strengths engaged and time span. It is not nit-picking, it is a
question of being accurate or not.

For example, many of those "battles" are simply drawn from the
Army's Campaign's, which are more than somewhat artificial
awards constructs. Some include units that were only notionally
participant, which skews the meaning even more.
Post by WJHopwood
Post by Rich
The U.S. Army figures are from "Army Battle Casualties and Non-
Battle Deaths", U.S. Army Adjutant General, 1952. The Navy figures
are from "Annual Report, Navy and Marine Corps Military Personnel
Statistics, 30 June 1964", prepared by the Bureau of Naval Personnel.
Not a very enlightening source in my view when related to the subject
of this discussion which is "Battle Deaths." The word "casualties"
includes "non-battle deaths" which could be the result of illness or
accident and also could encompass those rendered "not fit for duty"
as a result of non-fatal wounds or for other reasons.
You are serious aren't you? You are actually ignorant of the fact that
"Army Battle Casualties" is the actual source for "your" Wiki figures?
And you are also ignorant of the fact that is simply the ***title***
of the work? And that it categorizes "casualties" rather more thoroughly
than you think it does?
Post by WJHopwood
These figures from that source seem transparent enough to me.
What Is it that you can't see or understand?
I see and understand them very well, having worked with Statistical
Information Analysis Division many times. Now that they have been
rolled into the CMDC though, the actual statistical data sets are
not readily available unless you know where to look. The new site
only posts summaries, which is what you cite. Unfortunately the
devil is often in the details.
Post by WJHopwood
Post by Rich
"234,874" is total Army battle deaths, which includes 8,458
from "all other theaters" including "theater unknown".
So what? That has nothing to do with the subject, which is
"major battles" as deternined by the number of U.S. deaths which
occurred therein.
So what? Did you forget ***you asked*** where the missing data was?
I was simply answering ***your*** question. You initially attempted
to address the disposition of casualties by theater by simply
toting up random Wiki battle numbers. I was just giving you what
the actual numbers were. The ***missing*** numbers you asked
about weren't included because it cannot be determined where they
occurred.
Post by WJHopwood
OK. The Coast Guard deaths were only 574. But omitting the
Marine Corps battle deaths was a significant omission from your
figures.
No, it was not an "omission" at all since I did not have an
accurate breakdown by theater. They are probably about 95+%
Pacific, but I can't get more accurate than that without
further digging.
Post by WJHopwood
I disagree with your definition of KIA.
That's nice...except that it isn't "my definition", it is the
***Navy's*** accounting category. KIA are a subset of battle
deaths, pure and simple.
WJHopwood
2014-06-15 05:29:02 UTC
Permalink
On Saturday, June 14, 2014 11:53:25 AM UTC-4, Rich
Post by Rich
Post by WJHopwood
Of course I did. You even quote my explanation in the
third paragraph below.
Sorry, but that is not the "definition" of a "major battle",
but is simply a ranking of data.
The definition was valid. The data being the number of
deaths. That is the whole gist of this discussion. Get with
it. To "rank" something is to compare it with something
else of a similar or related nature. You seem to have a real
problem with the meaning of words. Perhaps they didn't
include a course in basic semantics in your Operational
Research" curriculum.
Post by Rich
Nor is it your "explanation" since simply passing the buck
to a Wiki ranking is not an explanation at all.
I stand by my explanation. Wiki made no ranking, I made the
ranking using Wiki's figures. Do you have a problem with that?
I thought I had made that as simple as possible in an effort to
help you overcome an apparent inability to understand basic
principles of measurement but I apparently overestimated your
x capacity to do so.
Post by Rich
... .... Yes, my expertise is "self-credited"....Do you need
my curriculum vitae to prove it?
No, I've already touched on what appears to be a weakness
in your alleged curriculum.
Post by Rich
So what is ***your*** expertise on the subject that allows
you to claim that evaluating combat intensity is a matter of
simple unthinking comparison of numbers.
I have made no claim of evaluating the number of combat
deaths by "intensity," If you used the word properly in the
context of this discussion you would know that, Look it up.
The evaluation of battles as being major battles because of
the number of battle deaths may not have had anything to do with "intensity.
Post by Rich
Post by WJHopwood
....I think it reasonable to contend that the battles I listed
as "major" because of the comparative total number of U.S.
deaths involved, are indeed relevant in connection with lethal
comparability....
It is not "academic nonsense". You are speaking in ignorance
about an academic field field in which I have expertise.
Well, I will say this much for you, you don't seem to suffer from
lack of self-esteem.
Post by Rich
The thrust of your initial post was about intensity, using raw
casualty numbers.
Negative. The thrust of my initial post was about the number of deaths
in battle. Not about the size of forces, the ferocity of the engagement,
or the strength on either side. Only whether the battle was "major"
or otherwise on the sole basis of the number of U.S. battle deaths
resulting therefrom. Wiki made that perfectly clear in its heading of
its article on which I based my inirtial post.
Post by Rich
Raw casualty numbers are a factor, but so are strengths engaged
and time span.
Sure, but those are details which may affect the outcome of the
battle and that's not what we have been discussing. The subject
here is the evaluation of a battle as a "major" battle on one criteria
only, the comparative number of battle deaths involved. (See my
remark two paragraphs above)
Post by Rich
The ***missing*** numbers you asked about weren't included
because it cannot be determined where they occurred....
it was not an "omission" at all since I did not have an
accurate breakdown by theater.....
That makes no sense at all. In your initial tally of total U.S.
WII deaths you completely omitted Marine Corps deaths.
It doesn't matter where the deaths ocurred,....

WJH
Rich
2014-06-15 18:24:41 UTC
Permalink
Post by WJHopwood
You seem to have a real
problem with the meaning of words. Perhaps they didn't
include a course in basic semantics in your Operational
Research" curriculum.
And perhaps they didn't include it in your course work either.
You initially objected to my providing data more accurate than
a raw accumulation of random Wiki totals by stating "My death figures
were for "major battles" while yours were for total battle
deaths by area and don't discriminate between battles with high death
rates vis-a-vis those with lower death rates. So, we are essentially
comparing Apples with Oranges."

You first brought up the matter of "rates", but the figures you are
using aren't "rates" - rate is a ratio between two different
measurement units over time. It is not a raw ranking of data.

Never mind that you still seem incapable of noticing that the
data given actually was a reinforcement of your argument, but then
you seem only interested in arguing for arguments sake.
Post by WJHopwood
I stand by my explanation. Wiki made no ranking, I made the
ranking using Wiki's figures. Do you have a problem with that?
The Wiki ranking is from high to low. Did you make it?
Post by WJHopwood
I thought I had made that as simple as possible in an effort to
help you overcome an apparent inability to understand basic
principles of measurement but I apparently overestimated your
And yet you seem to be unable to comprehend what a ratio is and
how it differs from a ranking of raw data. Perhaps they never taught
you that in grade school among the other basic principles?
Post by WJHopwood
No, I've already touched on what appears to be a weakness
in your alleged curriculum.
So you can only argue by ad hominem?
Post by WJHopwood
I have made no claim of evaluating the number of combat
deaths by "intensity," If you used the word properly in the
context of this discussion you would know that, Look it up.
Okay. Let's see: extreme degree of strength, force, energy, or feeling

So then you are saying that you were ***not*** arguing that the
casualties of the European Theater were of a more extreme degree of
strength, force, energy, or feeling than in the Pacific? Then what
were you arguing?
Post by WJHopwood
The evaluation of battles as being major battles because of
the number of battle deaths may not have had anything to do with "intensity.
And simply totaling them from a Wiki ranking doesn't necessarily
provide the whole picture the total theater casualties do.
Post by WJHopwood
Well, I will say this much for you, you don't seem to suffer from
lack of self-esteem.
And you don't seem to suffer from an unwillingness to engage in ad
hominem, avoidance of questions, and an unwillingness to argue
reasonably and rationally.
Post by WJHopwood
Negative. The thrust of my initial post was about the number of deaths
in battle.
So your initial post wasn't in fact the comparison of European versus
Pacific theater casualties that you wrote?

Then what were you trying to say?
Post by WJHopwood
Sure, but those are details which may affect the outcome of the
battle and that's not what we have been discussing. The subject
here is the evaluation of a battle as a "major" battle on one criteria
only, the comparative number of battle deaths involved. (See my
remark two paragraphs above)
So, again, you are now saying that your initial argument about
European versus Pacific casualties wasn't really what you were
saying?

You seem to be very confused about what you actually said.
Post by WJHopwood
That makes no sense at all. In your initial tally of total U.S.
WII deaths you completely omitted Marine Corps deaths.
It doesn't matter where the deaths ocurred,....
Wow...just wow. You seriously don't remember that ***you*** were
comparing European to Pacific casualties? So yes, indeedy it does
matter rather a lot if you can or cannot identify where those
casualties occurred.

Yes, I omitted Marine casualties, which was an oversight because
they are not well differentiated by theater. Sue me.
WJHopwood
2014-06-16 04:10:22 UTC
Permalink
On Sunday, June 15, 2014 2:24:41 PM UTC-4,
Post by Rich
So your initial post wasn't in fact the comparison of
European versus Pacific theater casualties that you
wrote?
Sure it was. To show that although Wiki had listed the
Pacific battles as among those most lethal, the actual
number of deaths in the most lethal European battles
exceeded most of the Pacific area battles by a wide
margin. Get it straight. Here is what I said:
"For instance, close to 3 times as many
Americans were killed in major European battles
(61,600) than in major battles in the Pacific (23,000).
On D-Day and the subsequent battle of Normandy
alone, there were 17,700 American deaths. That was
over 75% of the American deaths in all the major battles
of the Pacific war combined"
What is it about that that confuses you?
Post by Rich
...what were you trying to say?
Just what I did say. There is no contradiction in my
subsequent posts to what I said in my original post.
And furthermore, I didn't evaluate the number of
combat deaths as "major" or otherwise because of the
"intensity" of the battle. You dreamed that one up.
Post by Rich
So...you were ***not*** arguing that the casualties of
the European Theater were of a more extreme degree
of strength, force, energy, or feeling than in the Pacific?
That's right.
Post by Rich
Then what were you arguing?
Only that the number of deaths in some battles was higher
than the number of deaths in other battles. I haven't said
why. Location, the weather, sheer numbers of combatants,
myriad other reasons may or may not have factored into it
but it is only the classification of battles as "major" or
otherwise based on the number of battle deaths involved
in each one which has been the subject of my comments.
All the other stuff you dragged in is just fringe area baloney
which is irrelevant, tends to obfuscate the issue, and has
been quite boring..

WJH
Geoffrey Sinclair
2014-06-12 14:37:45 UTC
Permalink
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
Besides there is not as much requirement for informal summits
of leaders in the Pacific and it would come with reminders of
how many were colonies at the time. And VE day anniversaries
are more problematical for the Germans than D-Day.
Well, the unofficial D-Day summit has always struck me as being a bit odd.
I wouldn't expect anything like it elsewhere.
As noted before it is a unique event given how much it changed
operations in the main theatre, and it was considered a major
event even before it happened. It gives a reason (excuse?) for
meetings now. D-Day represents one of the few dates within a
war that can be considered important enough.

It gives a more neutral way as far as the Germans are concerned
to commemorate WWII.

Of course part of the decision on importance is subjective, like
other news values, why that missing child, person, cat, funny
story etc. is NEWS and similar even effectively identical stories
are news or just ......

I suggest the Yes Prime Minister episode where the previous
Prime Minister dies, and the purpose of state funerals is
explained - trade negotiations and diplomacy (Iran, Iraq,
Ireland and Israel sharing the same alphabetical order
allocated pew was considered a bad idea however, more so
given how problematical the Britain-Ireland relationship can
be). They are the best summits as no one expects outcomes.
It allows groups not officially talking to each other to talk to
each other as the guest list is fixed by something other than
current politics.

Also the political leader acting as head of state, not just another
day to day politician is something they desire to do, for all the
good and bad reasons.
My point was more that you see little media coverage or other
commemoration of anything beyond: Pearl Harbor, D-Day, and an annual
mention of the Russian commemoration of VE Day.
The usual start and end of the war.
Post by Geoffrey Sinclair
In looking at dates what other wars are remembered at all or
only when they started or ended?
The Canadians do pay some attention to Dieppe annually.
Anzac day, Gallipoli Dawn Service, 100th anniversary next year, major
government backed commemorations planned, so far they are not
mandatory, but some seem to live in hope.

Armistice day 11 November.

Most countries have their individual key war date(s), D-Day is one
that is technically shared enough to make it worthwhile for the
leaders to become involved, and where leaders go media follow
and the other way around of course.
And there was coverage of the 70th anniversary of the Sicily landings.
Yes the divide by 10 anniversaries tend to be noted and that
can force media coverage, instead of just the low key activity
by the people really interested in the event. Besides the
stories from 10 years ago can be used as the basis of the
"new" stories, making for low cost content, while doing the
public service of reminding people of their history.

In a media cycle of twitter sized messages, where even three
word slogans could be deemed too big a message it is harder
than ever to have history make it to the "front (web) page", and
for the current generation there are other wars with their
impacts to consider.

And so on.

Geoffrey Sinclair
Remove the nb for email.
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