Merlin Dorfman
2014-04-22 22:19:54 UTC
I have heard that General Marshall did not want the Marines "showing
up" the Army as they perhaps did in WW I, so he forbade Marines as ground
troops in Europe.
(1) Is it true that, while Marines obviously served aboard ships and in
small numbers in other roles, they did not serve in numbers in ground
combat because of Marshall's objections?
(2) If true, how did he get this absolute authority over American ground
forces in the ETO? Was it formally granted by the Joint Chiefs or FDR?
Or did the Chiefs and FDR accede to Marshall's wishes?
(3) Large numbers of Marines fought under MacArthur in the Southwest
Pacific. Did Marshall not object to that, or not have the authority in
that theater, or ...?
up" the Army as they perhaps did in WW I, so he forbade Marines as ground
troops in Europe.
(1) Is it true that, while Marines obviously served aboard ships and in
small numbers in other roles, they did not serve in numbers in ground
combat because of Marshall's objections?
(2) If true, how did he get this absolute authority over American ground
forces in the ETO? Was it formally granted by the Joint Chiefs or FDR?
Or did the Chiefs and FDR accede to Marshall's wishes?
(3) Large numbers of Marines fought under MacArthur in the Southwest
Pacific. Did Marshall not object to that, or not have the authority in
that theater, or ...?